Posted by Socrates in Affirmative Action, egalitarianism, equality, Socrates, Supreme Court at 2:36 am | Permanent Link
If you’re a “product of affirmative action,” doesn’t that mean, by default, that you’re not tops in your field and therefore not qualified to be on the U.S. Supreme Court? Given the importance of that court, why would anyone consider a “product of affirmative action” for it? [Article].